The article attributes the lower-than-average amounts of gray matter in psychosis patients to atrophy. What evidence is there that this is a loss that occurs at the time of the onset of psychotic symptoms, rather than a structural difference that exists at birth but only causes psychotic symptoms in conjunction with other variables that appear later in life?
I was wondering if any research has been done investigating whether current medications used to treat psychosis patients cause an increase in grey matter volume?
I am curious about the diagnosis of schizophrenia in young children. It is mentioned in the article that the individuals measured against the controls were between the ages 7-18 but that the individuals had been diagnosed with psychotic outbreaks in infancy or adolescence. Can schizophrenia really be diagnosed in infants?
Re "This lack, which was shared between the schizophrenia and type 1 bipolar illness sufferers, means the functions of this part of the brain are 'somehow atrophied'."
Are these functions atrophied due in part to neural plasticity & the 'death' of certain neural firing patterns because they are underused?
The article states that a majority of those with these illnesses have atrophied grey matter, but what about the other way around? How many of those who have atrophied brain matter contract or have contracted one of these illnesses?
I'm curious about the magnetic resonance testing used in this experiment to measure the volume of grey matter- is it hypothetically possible to periodically measure a group of people from infancy to adulthood to see whether the atrophied matter is the CAUSE or RESULT of these ilnesses?
I know that many of the medication used to help treat bi-polar are also anti-seizure medication. I wonder if people who suffer from seizures have a similar lack of grey matter?
The article attributes the lower-than-average amounts of gray matter in psychosis patients to atrophy. What evidence is there that this is a loss that occurs at the time of the onset of psychotic symptoms, rather than a structural difference that exists at birth but only causes psychotic symptoms in conjunction with other variables that appear later in life?
ReplyDeleteI was wondering if any research has been done investigating whether current medications used to treat psychosis patients cause an increase in grey matter volume?
ReplyDeleteDo they discuss at all how they lack of grey matter affects the other systems/ areas in the brain?
ReplyDeleteI am curious about the diagnosis of schizophrenia in young children. It is mentioned in the article that the individuals measured against the controls were between the ages 7-18 but that the individuals had been diagnosed with psychotic outbreaks in infancy or adolescence. Can schizophrenia really be diagnosed in infants?
ReplyDeleteRe "This lack, which was shared between the schizophrenia and type 1 bipolar illness sufferers, means the functions of this part of the brain are 'somehow atrophied'."
ReplyDeleteAre these functions atrophied due in part to neural plasticity & the 'death' of certain neural firing patterns because they are underused?
The article states that a majority of those with these illnesses have atrophied grey matter, but what about the other way around? How many of those who have atrophied brain matter contract or have contracted one of these illnesses?
ReplyDeleteI'm curious about the magnetic resonance testing used in this experiment to measure the volume of grey matter- is it hypothetically possible to periodically measure a group of people from infancy to adulthood to see whether the atrophied matter is the CAUSE or RESULT of these ilnesses?
ReplyDeleteI know that many of the medication used to help treat bi-polar are also anti-seizure medication. I wonder if people who suffer from seizures have a similar lack of grey matter?
ReplyDelete